
Originally Posted by
Manic
If they can prove without a doubt that your father ordered that food, then they have a case. If they have no signatures, no witnesses other than employees, and no other evidence of your father either making that phone call or showing up in person to order the food, then they have no case. Implied contract or not, all your dad needs to say is "I did not order food from these people". It's the same concept as when a woman will give her boyfriend a few thousand dollars as a loan, and they then break up, so the woman takes the boyfriend to court. Unless a formal document was filled out and signed by both parties, there is no proof whatsoever that the money given was not a gift, and if the defendant chooses to take that stand he will win the case. Is it fair? Not exactly, but it is reasonable. I could pick and choose any major corporation in the phone book and say they ordered food from me and refused to pay, but without proof other than my own word I would have no case whatsoever.